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Pass Guaranteed 2025 CSI CSC2: Canadian Securities Course Exam2–Professional Exam Questions
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CSI Canadian Securities Course Exam2 Sample Questions (Q71-Q76):
NEW QUESTION # 71
The principle of retraction in retractable preferred shares is identical to what other security?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The principle of retraction in retractable preferred shares allows the shareholder to force the issuing company to redeem the shares for cash at a predetermined price on or after a specified date. This feature is identical toretractable bonds and debentures, which give the bondholder the option to require the issuer to repay the principal before maturity.
* A. Callable preferred shares: Callability benefits the issuer, not the holder, and is not similar to retraction.
* B. Retractable common shares: Such securities are not common in the market and are not comparable to retractable preferred shares.
* C. Redeemable preferred shares: Redemption is at the issuer's discretion, unlike retraction, which is at the holder's discretion.
NEW QUESTION # 72
After reviewing a client's risk tolerance, time horizon and financial objectives. Andy recommends that a long- term asset mix of 55% equities, 40 bonds and 5% cash would be most appropriate for the client.
Which approach has Andy taken in his recommendation?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Strategic asset allocationis a long-term approach to portfolio management where a target allocation among asset classes (e.g., equities, bonds, cash) is established based on the client's risk tolerance, time horizon, and financial objectives. This allocation remains relatively constant over time, with periodic rebalancing to maintain the original proportions.
* Details of Andy's Recommendation:Andy recommends a fixed asset mix of 55% equities, 40% bonds, and 5% cash, which aligns with the principles of strategic asset allocation. The focus is on maintaining this allocation to meet long-term goals, without frequent shifts based on short-term market movements.
* Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
* A. Dynamic asset allocation: This involves frequent changes to asset allocation in response to market trends, which is not evident in Andy's recommendation.
* B. Tactical asset allocation: This is a short-term, active approach where adjustments are made based on market conditions to capitalize on opportunities.
* D. Ongoing asset allocation: While this involves periodic rebalancing, it is not a defined approach like strategic allocation.
References:
* CSC Volume 2, Chapter 16: Asset allocation strategies.
NEW QUESTION # 73
What market condition is typically evident during the late contraction to end of contraction phases?
Answer: A
Explanation:
During the late contraction to the end of contraction phase in the business cycle, the economy typically begins to show early signs of recovery, leading to shifts in monetary policy and interest rate trends. This period is marked by declining interest rates. Here's a breakdown of the conditions evident in this phase:
* Economic Context:
* As the economy contracts, unemployment may still be relatively high, consumer and business confidence is weak, and production is below potential output. These conditions prompt monetary authorities to adopt accommodative policies.
* The central bank, such as the Bank of Canada, reduces interest rates to stimulate borrowing, investment, and spending, aiding in economic recovery.
* Interest Rate Dynamics:
* Falling interest rates are a hallmark of the late contraction phase. These declines occur as central banks aim to provide economic support and lower the cost of capital.
* Lower interest rates tend to support a recovery in equity markets and encourage investment activity, setting the stage for the next phase of growth.
* Yield Curve Observation:
* During this phase, the yield curve, which may have inverted during earlier contraction stages, starts to steepen. This steepening is indicative of improving economic expectations.
* Elimination of Tight Monetary Policies:
* Tight monetary policies, which involve high interest rates to curb inflation, are generally not present in this phase. Instead, monetary easing is observed.
References to Study Documents:
* Canadian Securities Course Volume 2, Chapter 13, "Fundamental and Technical Analysis," discusses the business cycle and its implications on market conditions.
* Volume 1, Chapter 4, "Overview of Economics," explains how interest rates influence the economy and describes their behavior during different phases of the business cycle.
NEW QUESTION # 74
What obligation dues an IA have when communicating information about a preliminary prospectus to prospective investors?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Investment advisors (IAs) are required to record the names and addresses of all individuals who have requested and received a preliminary prospectus. This ensures compliance with securities regulations and provides a record for follow-ups and potential disclosures related to the offering.
* A. The IA must ensure a proxy is mailed: Proxy voting is related to shareholder meetings, not the prospectus distribution.
* B. The IA must provide a greensheet: A greensheet is used internally by investment firms, not distributed to clients.
* C. The IA must make a tombstone advertisement: Tombstone advertisements are created by the issuer, not the IA.
NEW QUESTION # 75
How do the fees differ between an F-class and front-end version of the same fund?
Answer: C
Explanation:
F-class funds are designed for fee-based accounts, where investors pay advisors a separate fee for services rather than a commission. This structure impacts the Management Expense Ratio (MER).
* Management Expense Ratio (MER):
* F-Class Funds: Exclude embedded advisor commissions, resulting in lower MER. These funds are cost-effective for investors in fee-based arrangements.
* Front-End Funds: Include advisor commissions as part of the MER, increasing overall costs.
* Fee Structure:
* F-class funds charge a flat management fee without embedded commissions, offering more transparency.
* Front-end funds involve a sales charge (front-end load) that compensates advisors directly at the time of purchase.
Key Differences Between F-Class and Front-End FundsWhy A is CorrectThe lower MER of F-class funds reflects the absence of embedded advisor fees, making them more attractive to fee-conscious investors.
References:
* Volume 2, Section 25: Fee-Based Accounts-Advantages and Structure of F-Class Funds.
* Volume 2, Section 17: Mutual Funds-Charges Associated with Funds.
NEW QUESTION # 76
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